In the bible they were married until one of them died. So if someone got married again after a divorce in god’s eyes he was still married and committing adultery.
“Traditional” marriage was all about commerce, was it not? Fathers traded their daughter’s hand in marriage for a herd of goats, a plot of land or cash. Young women came with dowries to increase their desirability, right? It wasn’t until fairly recently that marriage had anything to do with love and commitment, right?
I can’t comment on what Jesus may or may not have said on divorce, but in Jewish tradition of the time, divorce was very simple and had no real requirements. A man decided to divorce his wife (didn’t go the other way of course) and he did. Unless he specifically said it was for adultery or something there wasn’t any shame on her. That’s why it says in one of the Gospels that Joseph was going to divorce Mary ‘quietly’ when he learned she was pregnant. He didn’t want to shame her and wasn’t going to accuse her adultery. Just have a quiet no-fault divorce and move on with his life.
Divorce in the sense of Joseph and Mary was undoing the agreement of what we would now class as engagement as they weren’t actually married yet. At the time engagement was binding. When I was younger, in the west if someone became unengaged so to speak the person who broke of the engagement could be taken to court. I think the legal term at the time was ‘Breach of Promise.’ I am in my early 60s now, but can remember my mum and dad talking about it when it was taken of the statute books when I was a child.
I used Joseph and Mary as an example that would be familiar to Christians, if historically it was an engagement that it beyond my knowledge, but the story reflects the Torah law about divorce. (Deuteronomy 24:1–4)
If you look it up, npleasebe aware that the Hebrew word which has been usually translated as ‘unclean’ are used in Torah to refer to unhealthy conditions or those related to bodily fluids – so when it says a man may divorce a woman who is ‘unclean’ in his eyes, it is says that she is healthy in some fashion, not a moral judgement at all. Later where is refers to the woman as defiled, it would be better translated as ‘he has defiled her’ – that by forcing the woman to make her personal matters public, her first husband has shamed her and can therefore never marry her again. She is still free to marry other men, who may feel that whatever flaw her first husband saw in her her (barrenness, for instance) . The law also does not require that a man make public why he is divorcing her, he just needs to hand her a paper (a get) saying ‘I divorce you.’
Divorce is a sad thing in Jewish tradition, but it is not an evil or sinful thing. That idea is a product of Christianity.
The Bible says that Mary and Joseph were betrothed, which my Jewish friend said is the equivelant of being engaged. He also told me that they could also get divorced if they were married and the woman was still a virgin after a certain length of time. I think he said one year. As for divorce in general, I don’t see why a woman should stay in an abusive marriage. I have had fellow Christians start castigating someone who was getting divorced after years of abuse, even some woman have said that the abused woman must have done something to deserve it. I always say in these cases perhaps they would like to go to work with a black eye and a broken arm. My husband once nearly broke a neighbour’s arm cos he went to hit his wife in front of him.
they don’t listen very well at all, and twist words of love into hate and peace into anger.
Sorry, I got the link twice and the first one didn’t seem to mention divorce. Mind you it was gone mid night here and I was falling asleep.
Slight discrepancy, they could only get divorced if the partner had committed adultary, that was, I think the only reason.
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